'Science' and the post-Columbine depopulation of the Americas by ‘germs’ from Europeans: a rebuttal.

Does the ‘smallpox virus’ exist and is this a reasonable explanation for the depopulation of Ameri-Indians? Or is the combination of war, plague, bacteria and contamination more likely?

“The word “virus” is derived from the Latin word for poison. Viruses are associated with all forms of life (bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes). Viruses are infectious, obligate intracellular parasites whose genomes consist of either DNA or RNA. Virus genomes direct their own replication and the synthesis of other viral components, using cellular systems in appropriate host cells. Virus particles (known as virions) are formed by assembly from newly synthesized components within the host cell. Virions are the vehicle for transmission of the genome to the next host cell or organism.” 

(Pellett et al, ‘Basics of Virology’, 2014, offering the standard description of a ‘virus’)

Note: Viruses are 250-400 nanometers in size. A nanometer is one billionth of a meter…a small fraction of a bacteria.  Not a single isolated and purified virus can be shown.  To satisfy your own curiosity you can send FOI requests to various health and governmental agencies and demand to see an example of a purified, isolated virus.  They will reply that they don’t have such examples to show you. 

Introduction

One of the claims to support the worldview that ‘contagious diseases’ are spread by ‘germs’, is the ‘genocide’ of Ameri-Indians post-Columbus.  It has long been established that the evisceration of Ameri-Indian culture, society and people was perpetrated through a mixture of war, slavery, and disease.  Depending on your source, the weighting of war, slavery and disease in this catastrophe varies.  ‘Virus hunters’ routinely invoke the post-Columbine era of Ameri-Indian civilisational destruction as ‘proof’ of ‘contagious’ diseases, passed on by White humans and their livestock, to Ameri-Indian natives.  This theory is most certainly wrong and is entirely unproven and unsupported by facts or common sense.

Context

Since the 1990s, it has become standard fare to vastly inflate the numbers of pre-Columbine (before 1492) Ameri-Indians in North and South America.  The more rancid and extreme population estimates now range between 80-100 million Ameri-Indians in the Western hemisphere pre-1492 A.D. with a general scholarly agreement that 60 million might be a correct estimate.  This number is however a conjecture and given the paucity of proofs, more likely a fiction, generated to impress and overawe the reader with the colossal scale of human genocidal destruction, initiated by Christian Europeans upon pagan Ameri-Indians. In this story some 50 million or more Ameri-Indians perished mostly through ‘germs’ over 3 centuries, or the same number who died in Europe from the Black Death in the 14th century, a plague caused by bacteria.

Reality

In the 18^th and 19^th centuries the estimate of the pre-Columbine population in the Western Hemisphere was 8-12 million.  This is a more reasonable figure and less tainted by political motives and secular theology than post-modern estimates which provide no proof of numbers ranging from 60-100 million.  Ameri-Indian society was a stone-age culture, with settled agriculture existing only in parts of Central America and the Andes ranges.  There was no possibility that Central and South America, with a somewhat limited and primitive agricultural base, or North America, with a hunter-gatherer-foraging culture absent of urban centres, could have supported 60-100 million people.  Claiming such population figures is unreasonable and unproven. 

By contrast Europe in 1500 was a far wealthier, more advanced, civilised and agriculturally innovative culture and possessed maybe 60 million people.  The 14^th century episode of the Black Death or bubonic plague had erased about half the population.  Even despite this catastrophe, it is unreasonable to posit that in 1492, the primal societies of the Western Hemisphere had a similar or even a greater population than a Europe which was littered with small-scale cities and complex agriculture and trade.  The less advanced, pre-modern societies of the Americas could never have supported such a mass of people. 

Common sense

The best estimates are that maybe 1 million natives existed north of the Rio Grande pre-1492, some 3-5 million in Mexico and Central America and a further 4-5 million in South America.  No cities or advanced agriculture existed north of the Rio Grande.  The Aztec and Incan empires were slave-empires, with conurbations comprising the capitals of Tenochtitlan and Cuzco.  Advanced agriculture outside of the capital territories were sparse and would never have supported some 50-90 million people.  Contrary to historical rewriting there is no proof that massive farming or agriculture was endemic in the Western Hemisphere in the pre-Columbine period.

The Spanish conquered the Aztec and Inca empires with fewer than 1000 men.  The annihilation of the Aztecs for example, was accomplished by the Spanish leading a ‘native’ army who had tired of Aztec tyranny, slavery, human sacrifice and exploitation.  A few hundred men with guns cannot unseat an empire of some 5 million, or for the revisionist Marxist, the false claim of 30-40 million people.  The same was true of the Spanish destruction of the Inca’s, a much-hated elite-aristocratic group, famous for brutality and savagery.  It is simply not credible that a handful of Spaniards overthrew a region teeming with neo-Marxist figures of 30 millon or more people. The population of the Americas must have been in the 8-12 million range. ‘Native’ revolts as much as Spanish steel and guns overthrew the two principal empires of the Americas.

‘Germs’ and guns

Guns and steel were important, but they can’t explain a population reduction of some 75-90% or 6-10 million, over a few centuries. The ‘consensus’ is that disease destroyed these societies far more completely than war and anarchy.  For the ‘virus’ hunters the Ameri-Indians were decimated by ‘contagious’ diseases and are thus a totem and proof for the virus faithful.  In this belief system, the Whites brought ‘new’ and novel ‘pathogens’ which the Ameri-Indians had no defence against, and they perished en-masse allowing the Spanish to seize power as the population was reduced and enfeebled through contagion. 

As colonisation progressed, the carnage by disease accelerated until by 1900 only 10-25% of the baseline pre-1492 Ameri-Indian population remained.  It is thus believed and promoted that ‘germs’ effaced 75-90% of the native populations.  In particular the smallpox ‘virus’, along with flu and measles explain why the Ameri-Indians were largely exterminated. 

False narratives

Do any parts of these ‘agreed narratives’ make any sense?  Did the advent of Whites, with their horses, cows, pigs and ‘infectious’ diseases really initiate ‘smallpox’ and other ‘great killers’, or were other factors at work?  Have we got the entire history of ‘disease’ wrong?  Do smallpox ‘viruses’ even exist for example?  If not, what happened in the post-Columbine Americas?

Smallpox

According to ‘The Science’, the origination of the smallpox ‘virus’ is from bovines or cows, though the quack Jenner believed that ‘horse grease’ from the hoofs of horses, passed to cows from farm workers, was to blame.  We are told that ‘influenza’ (Corona viruses) jumped from pigs to humans.  Birds and fowl are also alleged to spread ‘influenza’, named ‘bird flu’.  It is agreed that horses generated the ‘tuberculosis virus’.  Livestock thus creates contagious diseases.  When these were introduced into the Americas, so the theory states, contagions were unleashed on the native populations. 

The theory around smallpox is:

·       Bovines including dairy cows, supposedly suffer from Cowpox

·       The ‘cowpox’ in the cow is a part of the genus orthopoxvirus

·       The cowpox virus is zoonotic, meaning that it is transferable between species

·       This ‘virus’ is supposedly related to the vaccinia virus causing ‘smallpox’ in humans

·       In humans the smallpox ‘virus’ is called the variola virus

·       Humans contract ‘variola virus’ from exposure cows in any form (milking, farming, slaughtering)

Smallpox has always been seized upon as a great killer of the Ameri-Indians.  Smallpox as a virulent disease was supposedly passed on from bovines to humans through the activity of farming, including milking. Close contact is believed to be sufficient for the ‘orthopox virus’ to ‘jump’ species. Ingesting meat, dairy, skin, urine, faeces, or any animal detritus can lead to ‘smallpox’ in humans. Signatures of the disease include pustules or poxes on the hands and face. 

For many with immature or compromised immune systems including young children, death can follow.  The infection-to-death rate in the 19^th century in the slums of the UK from ‘smallpox’ was low at around 0.4-1%.  As many doctors commented in the 18^th and 19^th centuries, smallpox was not a particularly deadly disease if proper non-chemical treatment was given.  Why then would the Ameri-Indians die in such numbers? The answer is always ‘lack of immunity’ due to not spending thousands of years with cows. Is this theory validated?

Where is it?

If the process of smallpox contraction listed above is true, it should be easily presentable and verifiable.  Yet from various FOI requests in the UK and elsewhere, many of us have yet to receive any proof of an isolated and purified ‘variola virus’ in situ or in nature, nor of an isolated and purified cow ‘orthopoxvirus’ in situ in a bovine, or in nature. Further no one can present evidence of the zoonotic cow to human ‘virus’ transfer in real life. How does that work? How does a 250 nanometer size creature without a shell, ‘jump’ from a cow to a human and infect and sicken the new host? Why don’t we see ‘smallpox’ infecting new generations of say city dwellers, or those without contact with bovines, exposed to cattle for the first time, especially those who were not ‘variolated’, or who were ‘vaccinated’ long ago?

Not a single health agency can show you a purified, isolated ‘cowpox virus’, nor the variola ‘virus’ in a human, nor proof of zoonotic transfer. The US CDC for example cannot provide any evidence that an isolated and purified form of the ‘variola’ smallpox ‘virus’, exists (FOI Request CDC). The UK HSA (Health Security Agency) is likewise clueless. Thousands of FOI requests have elicited the same standard answer, that the requested information cannot be found. The best they will have is lab generated ‘smallpox’ genomes or computer models like the image above. These are man-made and do not reside in nature.

If proofs of the existence of a natural ‘virus’ cannot be provided what are the smallpox ‘vaccines’ ‘preventing’ and how can they be made if the targeted ‘pathogen’ is unknown and why are they being injected into children?

Symptoms

Smallpox has the same symptoms as a wide variety of other illnesses and ailments including syphilis, and ‘chickenpox’. Many diseases can be attributed to the ‘smallpox virus’ when in reality, the disease should not be classified as ‘smallpox’. Syphilis for example is caused by bacterium not a ‘virus’. 

The theory around smallpox is that a person will be ill from 7-20 days after exposure to ‘the virus’. A person with smallpox generally has a sudden onset of a fever, headache, backache and most tellingly, a rash with vesicles (blisters) or ‘the pox’.  Many other diseases offer the same traits. Usually, the victim of smallpox will live, the death rate is naturally quite low, but the face and hands may be ‘pocked’ with small holes. 

The smallpox ‘virus’ supposedly kills its host by producing “a protein that blocks a wide range of human interferons, which are molecules produced by our immune systems meant to stop viral replication” (Science Daily, December 2009).  The last known case of smallpox was in 1977 in mostly un-vaccinated Somalia. 

In the ‘West’ the smallpox disease was eradicated during the 1930s long before mandatory ‘vaccines’ appeared in the 1960s.  All infectious diseases were eradicated in the early 20^th century due to improved sanitation, hygiene, diet and clean water, long before modern ‘vaccines’ ‘saved’ the population from infectious diseases.  Many posts on this substack discuss this verity. 

Epidemics and ‘Indians’?

We know that in the 18^th and 19^th century death rates from smallpox were low – less than 1% of the population.  This death rate is not an epidemic, though every textbook, teaching aid and ‘news’ publication blasts out that catastrophic smallpox epidemics decimated every European country.  In reality, the death rates from ‘smallpox’ went up after the introduction of the ‘vaccines’ in 1796. 

If within White populations the ‘scourge’ of smallpox was equivalent to our modern death rate from ‘influenza’, why did the Ameri-Indians perish in their millions from the same ‘variola virus’?  The usual answer is a lack of an immune system defence and that it was a ‘novel pathogen’.  This makes no sense for many reasons.

1-Cow contact

First, in the section above the ‘zoonotic transfer’ of the smallpox ‘virus’ from cows to humans assumes being in close proximity to cows.  This could include farming, milking, feeding, cleaning, and slaughtering.  There is not a single experiment or observation anywhere in the world which supports the airborne or physical transfer of the ‘orthopoxvirus’ from a cow to a human.  Not one example or proof exists, that Ameri-Indians were ill, sick or died after contact with cows, or White farm-hands working with cows, or Whites exposed to cows. No records or reports from the Spanish in the 16th or 17th centuries mention a rampage of illness after contact with livestock within Ameri-Indian communities.

2-Person to person contact

Another vector would be for Spanish men or women, to spread the ‘virus’ which were resident in their bodies, to the Ameri-Indians.  This could include those who were both sick from smallpox and those who are not sick but carried the ‘virus’ and disease (the asymptomatic myth, again never proven).  No evidence for such transmissions exists anywhere in the world.  In the past 200 years in the ‘West’ there are no experiments or real-world observations in which someone suffering from ‘smallpox’ has passed the ‘virus’ on through touching, coughing or sneezing. Why would such a transfer only occur globally, within the Ameri-Indian population?

Deaths from smallpox in the 18th and 19th century were located mostly in children living in slums or poverty, or suffering from illnesses which have symptoms similar to smallpox. There are endless examples of one child in a large family becoming ill with smallpox symptoms and not infecting any other family member, including other children.  Adults in the main did not die from smallpox.

Yet we are to believe that millions of adult Ameri-Indians collapsed and died from this ‘virus’. This is non-sensical. Are we saying that Ameri-Indian adults, living close to nature had immature immune systems? Where is the proof for that proposition? The opposite would be more likely, depending on their diets and physical health of course. Given their life-styles, native Ameri-Indians would have possessed very healthy immune systems.

3-Blankets

One claim is that the Spanish and other White settlers gave ‘contaminated’ blankets to the Indians, full of smallpox ‘germs’.  This has been called biological warfare and has become an essential element in the holocaust story.  It is false of course.  Further, not a single real-world experiment or observation supports the surreal supposition that you can saturate a blanket or clothing with smallpox ‘viruses’ or with liquid from a smallpox sufferer and kill another human.  No such experimental or mechanical real-world proof of this exists.  The smallpox ‘virus’ composed of DNA or RNA, without a shell and without a host would never survive in a ‘blanket’.  DNA and RNA are very unstable and do not live outside a host or a shell-membrane structure like a cell. 

What about other races?

Whites had contact with a wide variety of races who never succumbed to smallpox, influenza or measles.  In the Western Hemisphere, the Eskimos were not eradicated and did not suffer the mortality from disease at the same level as their co-brethren and races to the south.  Sub-Saharan Africans were likewise little affected by the ‘scourges’ of smallpox, measles or flu, including a wide variety of Black tribes and even the Bushmen.  North African Berbers, Arabs, Muslims and Turks were never exterminated by these ‘contagions’ even though for many (eg isolated tribes of Berbers), livestock contact was rare.

Extensive contact with Chinese, Indian, and Japanese populations never resulted in massive manifold demonstrations of contagion or smallpox epidemics.  The aboriginals of Australia likewise never suffered from smallpox, measles or flu. Neither did the Wends, the Latvians, the Poles, the Magyars, the Huns and other Central and Eastern peoples who came into very close contact with Western Europeans and their livestock, a novel experience for most of these tribes.

It is simply unreasonable to propose that only the Ameri-Indians, out of the global population that had contact with Western European Whites and their domesticated animals, suffered a population decline of 75-90% due to smallpox, measles and influenza.  No evidence can be offered to support this theory and it does not comport with common sense. 

To support the affirmed narrative around the germ-decimation of the Ameri-Indians, other non-Ameri-Indian groups must have been affected by the same contagions if livestock-created ‘viruses’ were really spreading ‘disease’.  Further, many of the aforementioned races and groups did suffer from plague and contamination when they encountered White Europeans. An example is Napoleon’s invasion of Egypt from 1798-1801, where plague ran rampant during his campaign. Almost every similar encounter, in which war and violence was present between White Europeans and the indigenous, relates deaths from disease and plague.

Long live the virus?

We list some simple questions that ‘The Science’ cannot answer which refute the pox-contagion theory:

1. How can a ‘virus’ be eradicated?  If smallpox originates in cows, it cannot be extinct, so why doesn’t it spread or ‘recombinate’ its DNA and RNA to produce ‘variants’ (a common theme with the Corona scamdemic)?  Why the end of smallpox ‘epidemics’? (it can’t be the vaccinations, given the increase in death rates post-vaccine implementation)

2. The ‘variola’ ‘virion’ structure must persist and exist in humans as well as cows.  Has it stopped ‘evolving’, or why doesn’t it continue to produce “a protein that blocks a wide range of human interferons, which are molecules produced by our immune systems meant to stop viral replication”, especially in those who are not ‘vaccinated’ or who had ‘vaccines’ long ago?

3. At least 20% of the global population remains unvaccinated against smallpox (The Lancet).  Why then doesn’t this ‘variola genome’ kill those who have not been lanced with the ‘variolation’?  All areas of the world have been introduced to Western livestock and Westerners. 

4. Most Spanish in the Americas were not ill with smallpox.  Out of a few thousand men and women, how can a handful who might have been ill, spread ‘smallpox’ amongst the native population so quickly?  The Spanish were a small minority for centuries in the Americas.  Contact with the vast majority of ‘natives’ would have been superficial at best. 

5. Today, most adults were ‘variolated’ against ‘smallpox’ some 20-50 years ago.  There is no proof of lifetime immunity from an injection against the ‘variola virus’.  Why then hasn’t ‘smallpox’ returned? 

6. Why don’t isolated and unvaccinated communities such as the Amish, who live near livestock, die of smallpox or ‘recombinated’ ‘variants’?

7. Why didn’t the Ameri-Indians die en-masse from tuberculosis, supposedly spread by contacts with horses? Why would only the cow-inspired ‘smallpox’ ‘virus’ be lethal and not tuberculosis if both were novel ‘pathogens’ ?

8. Why did smallpox ‘die off’ after improvements in sanitation, health and hygiene in the late 19th and early 20th centuries? This obviously indicates that ‘smallpox’ is a disease emanating from filth and pestilential conditions, including contaminated food and water. Death rates did not go down post vaccination (1796), but went up and in some cases (1870-73) resulted in massive epidemics. Wouldn’t filth and pestilence also afflict and kill Ameri-Indians?

No one can or will bother to answer these simple questions. No historical or modern experiments can be shown to prove inter-alia; cow to human transmission of cowpox; person-to-person transfer of smallpox; or the spread of the same through blankets or textiles within any non-White racial group.

Bacteria and Plague anyone?

Is it possible that smallpox did not decimate the Ameri-Indians?  Is it plausible that a bacterial disease or plague made it ways through these populations?  A bacterium which was novel and avoided immune system defences?  Symptoms of bacterial plague disease include boils, cists, pustules, and bulbous nodes emitting pus.  

The origin of ‘plague’ has been identified to be the virulent bacterium Yersinia pestis which was apparently discovered in 1894 by Alexandre Yersin.  Y pestis attacks the immune system of a host by injecting toxins and disabling its defence cells such as macrophages.  This allows the bacterium to replicate unhindered. 

The rod shaped Y pestis can be carried by small mammals who act as hosts including rats, mice, chipmunks, prairie dogs, rabbits, and squirrels.  It is still unclear how the bacterium is passed to humans, though fleas, faeces, bites, ingestion of rotten or spoilt meat and liquid or blood transfers could be obvious transmission pathways.  There is no evidence that the Y pestis bacterium inhabits husbandry or domesticated animals such as cows and pigs.  Given the long history of plague in Europe it is logical to assume that European ships would have transported small animals potentially carrying Y pestis to the New World.

Plagues are common in human history.  There are the buboes or lymph node plagues as well as the pneumatic or respiratory varieties.  Symptoms from both can be similar to that of smallpox and measles.  The 6^th century ‘Justinian plague’ decimated the Mediterranean’s population by some 30-40%.  From the 530’s to the 560’s, whilst the plague spread, war was also endemic, killing probably a further 10% in the affected areas of Italy and North Africa as Justinian’s Eastern Byzantine Roman empire attempted to reconquer the Western.  This plague would have been spread by the Y pestis or a similar bacterium, not a ‘virus’. 

Europe was of course ravaged by similar plagues during the 14th and 15th centuries. It is thus common sense that Europeans, sufferers of almost endless waves of Y pestis-induced plague, would have carried the same to the ‘New World’ in their ships filled with mice, rats, mammals and fleas, along with cargoes of tainted water and food. Wouldn’t the exportation of plague to the Americas just be an extension of what had been occurring in Europe on a regular basis during the medieval and early modern periods? Further, most historical annals of wars describe the attendant destruction visited upon armies and citizens of disease and plague. War, violence and pestilence are usually found together. It is not an exagerration to state that plague and disease have killed more soldiers than combat.

Leptospirosis

Given that other aboriginal populations around the globe did not suffer from ‘smallpox’, the plague theory is more likely to be valid.  In certain locales plague would have been combined with diseases spread by filth, waste, contaminated water, spoilt food and the anarchy caused by war and violence.  There would therefore be 3 vectors; war, bacterium-induced plague and various forms of bacterium-caused contamination poisoning. 

Leptospirosis is a disease generated by the bacterium of the same name, which is found in contaminated water and soil.  It can inhabit humans and animals and be passed between them, including through ingestion of contaminated urine or other fluids in the water and soil.  The symptoms are very similar to smallpox including rashes, pustules and boils.  Untreated leptospirosis can lead to meningitis which is the inflammation of the membranes around the brain and spinal cord, liver failure which is always fatal, kidney damage, respiratory problems and death. 

Leptospirosis affects about 1 million people every year around the world and has a death rate of about 0.6%.  In pre-modern societies it is not unreasonable to assume a much higher death rate of say 6-10%. Over a century, if the spread of plague and leptospirosis persisted, this death rate would wipe out a population.

Some researchers find this a feasible thesis:

“We suggest an additional candidate: leptospirosis complicated by Weil syndrome. Rodent reservoirs from European ships infected indigenous reservoirs and contaminated land and fresh water. Local ecology and high-risk quotidian practices of the native population favoured exposure and were not shared by Europeans. Reduction of the population may have been incremental, episodic, and continuous; local customs continuously exposed this population to hyperendemic leptospiral infection over months or years, and only a fraction survived. Previous proposals do not adequately account for signature signs (epistaxis, jaundice) and do not consider customs that may have been instrumental to the near annihilation of Native Americans” (Marr & Cathey, a 2010 study on Native Indians in New England, 1616-1619).

This makes a lot more sense, than the ‘virus’ theory which has no proof to support it.  Two vectors of disease, both caused by bacterium, namely the plague and leptospirosis, along with war and enslavement devastated the American indigeneous over centuries.

The Bottom Line

This post has shown yet again the poverty of ‘science’ and its Scientism and the lack of critical thinking or proof in much of it.  ‘The Science’ just assumes certain ‘postulates’ to be true without verifying if they are valid.  An example is that smallpox, the flu and measles were the great killers of the Ameri-Indians.  No mechanical, observable and repeatable proof is provided.  The long history of catastrophic plagues caused by bacteria, pestilence, filth, war and contamination is known, documented, observed and replicable.  But the narrative finds it best to ignore that reality and focus on ‘viruses’, so the mafia cartel of government and pharmaceuticals can push their drugs and escalate their profits.

There is no question that European colonisation unleashed the vectors of war and bacterium plague upon the indigenous populations. War, enslavement, land appropriation and cultural erasure would have killed a large percentage of the 8-12 million or so natives.  Probably a higher percentage succumbed to the plague, leptospirosis, food and water contamination.  Unfortunately it has always been thus in history.

We can conclude that the ‘orthopoxvirus’ or ‘cowpox’, and the ‘variola virus’ or ‘smallpox’, neither proven to exist, played no role in the great destruction of Ameri-Indian civilisation and its people. It was the age old evils of war, violence, pestilential filth and disease spread by deadly bacterium, which erased some 6-10 million Ameri-Indians.

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Sources

Marr, J. S., & Cathey, J. T. 2010. New Hypothesis for Cause of Epidemic among Native Americans, New England, 1616–1619. Emerging Infectious Diseases, 16(2), 281-286. https://doi.org/10.3201/eid1602.090276

Cameron, Catherine et al, 2015. Beyond Germs: Native Depopulation in North America University of Arizona Press, Oct 22, 2015

Pellett Philip et al, 2014. Basics of Virology, doi:10.1016/B978-0-444-53488-0.00002-X

Some books not to waste time with

"Guns, Germs, and Steel." by Jared Diamond. Anything by Diamond is absolutely dreadful and is fuel for a fire.

"Born to Die: Disease and New World Conquest." by Noble David Cook

"1491: New Revelations of the Americas Before Columbus." by Charles C. Mann